Of everyone who has made postings regarding Divine Healing, we are all in agreement that God still does desire to heal today, and does as a matter of fact still heal people today. But what we seem to be disagreeing upon is when God desires to heal the Believer, or all Believers. We know that there are some in the Body of Christ who don’t believe that miracles are for today, but for them I wonder how they will be raised into glorified bodies if miracles have ceased for the physical body? But for this list, for the most part at least, we at least have a foundation of agreement upon which we can begin to build unity in this discussion.

Too many Believers, I am afraid, do not understand the significance of Divine Healing and the role it plays in our Salvation and what Divine Healing is intended to mean in the life of the Believer. 

My question to the list is this. What role does "Faith" have in Divine Healing if healing is based strictly upon the Sovereignty of God alone?

Matthew 8:13 records that, 

"Jesus said to the Centurion, ‘Go your way, and AS YOU HAVE BELIEVED it will be done for you. And his servant was healed that very  hour."

Matthew 9:2 records, 

"And behold, they brought to Him [Jesus] a man sick of the palsy, lying on a bed; and Jesus SEEING THEIR FAITH said to the one who was sick of the palsy, ‘Son, be of good cheer, YOUR SINS ARE FORGIVEN’....(vs. 6) But that you may KNOW that the Son of Man [Jesus] has power on earth to FORGIVE SINS, then He said to the sick of palsy, ‘Stand up, take up your mat, and go home.’ And he stood up, and went to his home."

Why is forgiveness used here as the foundation upon which Jesus healed this man? Jesus healed this man so that "you may KNOW that the Son of Man has power on earth to FORGIVE SINS," according to Scripture.

In Matthew 9:22 the Scripture records that,

"When Jesus saw her, He said, ‘Daughter, be of good comfort, YOUR FAITH HAS MADE YOU WHOLE (completely well).’ And the  woman was made whole (completely well) that very hour."

In Matthew 15:28 the Scripture records,

"Then Jesus answered and said to her, ‘O woman, GREAT IS YOUR FAITH, it shall be done for you as you desire for it to be done.’ And her daughter was made whole from that very hour."

In Matthew 9:29 the Scripture records,

"Then Jesus touched their eyes saying, ‘ACCORDING TO YOUR FAITH IT SHALL BE SO FOR YOU.’ And there eyes were opened."

Maybe it seems like a coincidence to some, but the Scripture seems to clearly indicate to me that healing, faith, God, and the will of the individual desiring healing all have something to do within these occurrences of Divine Healing taking place.

In Matthew 13:58 the Scripture records that Jesus, 

"Did not many mighty works there because of their unbelief." 

This Scripture clearly indicates that a lack of faith results in NOT MANY MIGHTY WORKS being done by Jesus. Why was Jesus unable to do many mighty works because of unbelief (or lack of faith) if Divine Healing rests upon the Sovereignty of God without the cooperation of the human will?

To the Centurion JESUS [GOD] said, 

"'AS YOU HAVE BELIEVED'....And his servant was healed..." 

JESUS [GOD] healed the man sick of palsy...

"SEEING THEIR FAITH....’That you might know that the Son of Man has POWER on earth to forgive sins...’" 

To another JESUS [GOD] said,

"YOUR FAITH has made you whole." 

To the blind JESUS [GOD] said,

"'ACCORDING TO YOUR FAITH it shall be done for you'...And there eyes were opened." 

And yet to another still He [JESUS, GOD IN THE FLESH] 

"'O woman GREAT IS YOUR FAITH, it shall be done for you as you desire'...and her daughter was made whole from that very hour."

The evidence is there in Scripture. Now all that is left is for you to discover what does this all mean?